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Yes, milady comes from my lady This seems rather a poor act of classification,. Milady (from my lady) is an english term of address to a noble woman
Adopt Auction 03: Mystic Griffin [ CLOSED ] by UmbraOwl on DeviantArt
It is the female form of milord Everyone understands that, in the binary, the opposite of 'man' is 'woman', and the opposite of 'gentleman' is, namely, 'gentlewoman'. And here's some background on milord
The plural possessive is ladies'. lady is singular, so if you were referring solely to one woman's shoes, it would be the lady's shoes. as for your second question, i'm assuming you're referring to a group of women in your salutation of them, so it would be good morning, ladies. and as you're addressing them directly, the comma preceding ladies is necessary.
Where did the saying ladies first originate Did it originally appeared in english countries, or And is this always expressed in a positive/polite tune of meaning Daughter of the duke of marlborough.husband's an utter rascal
Is the usage of handsome here archaic, or just rarely used by those in the know If the former, when did it become so? Otherwise, as elliot frisch has suggested, lady is the term you want But in my opinion, if you're talking about clients of yours, be gender neutral
![Adopt Auction 03: Mystic Griffin [ CLOSED ] by UmbraOwl on DeviantArt](https://a.deviantart.net/avatars-big/l/a/ladyeloise.gif?1)
Lady can have negative implications in this setting because it is often used in a negative fashion, e.g
That lady wouldn't stop talking about. If you are wondering why we don't write ladies's, it is because ladies is one of the exceptions, along with girls', parents', players', weeks' and even klingons' it can get a bit niggly with names too Aristophanes' plays, but jesus's miracles and (usually) james. I tried searching google ngram viewer for look lady and listen lady, both capitalized so as to occur at the start of a sentence, with the hope that these ngrams would reflect the usage of lady in a derogatory/dismissive sense
It seems to have come into usage around 1950, and really took off in the late 1990s. Even when lady macbeth says And take my milk for gall, that would definitely support the literal humorism theory, but i still don't understand how we get from milk to blood (too much of the blood humor supposedly being the problem). I have been wondering about this little problem for a while now
